ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC
1. Which vaccine is given to children at birth?
A. BCG B. DPT
C. Measles D. Chickenpox
2. Facilities such as medical, legal, police, counselling,
shelter are being provided at one centre by
Government, is known as:
A. GARIMA B. APARAJITA
C. NARI D. MAHILA
3. ICDS programme was launched in year:
A. 1973 B. 1974
C. 1975 D. 1976
4. Which one of the following services is not provided
to the beneficiaries of ICDS?
A. Employment B. Health Check-up
C. Immunization D. Referral Services
5. The first indicator of PEM is:
A. Skin changes B. Hair changes
C. Over weight for age D. Under weight for age
6. ‘Kwashiorkar’ term was coined by:
A. Louis Pasteure B. Jelliffe
C. Davidson D. Cicely Williams
7. Severe wasting of muscles is observed in children
with:
A. Anaemia B. Osteoporosis
C. Beriberi D. Marasmus
8. Whooping cough is primarily a disease of:
A. Infants B. Old people
C. Teenagers D. Adults
9. Which of these is an infectious disease?
A. Hypertension B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Cancer D. Tuberculosis
10. ‘Genu Vulgum’ is a result of:
A. Fluoride toxicity
B. Excess of Manganese
C. Deficiency of Potassium
D. Iodine toxicity
11. Extra energy required by lactating mother during first
6 months is:
A. 500 kcal / day B. 600 kcal / day
C. 700 kcal / day D. 800 kcal / day
12. Nausea among pregnant women can be reduced by
eating:
A. Food rich in fat
B. Spicy food
1
C. Small and frequent meals
D. Large meals
13. Which of these is a combined vaccine?
A. HIB B. DPT
C. HEP B D. Varicella
14. Sabla scheme implemented at the ICDS level is for:
A. School age children B. Adolescent girls
C. Elderly women D. Working women
15. The Red Cell life span is:
A. increased in PEM
B. does not change in PEM
C. shortened in PEM
D. extended in sodium deficiency
16. Malaria is transmitted from human to human by the
bite of infected mosquito:
A. Aedes aegypti B. Aedes albopictus
C. Female anopheles D. Culex
17. The hormone that stimulates the alveoli in the breasts,
resulting in milk production is:
A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin
C. Leutinising hormone D. Estrogen
18. Requirement of which nutrient becomes double during
pregnancy?
A. Iron B. Protein
C. Energy D. Calcium
19. Oxalates present in certain vegetables prevent the
absorption of which of the following?
A. Iron B. Vitamin D
C. Iodine D. Sodium
20. The three energy yielding nutrients are:
A. Vitamins, protein and minerals
B. Vitamins, carbohydrates and fat
C. Fat, carbohydrates and protein
D. Minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates
21. Iron is an essential element for the formation of which
of the following?
A. Haemoglobin B. Myoglobin
C. Adrenaline D. Pepsin
22. The risk of hypertension is increased by high intake of:
A. Phosphorus B. Potassium
C. Sodium D. Sulphur
23. Base of the food pyramid is formed of:
A. Cereals and Pulses B. Vegetables and Fruits
C. Sugar D. Meat and its products
24. Whole grains are important source of:
A. B – Vitamins B. Vitamin C
C. Lipids D. b-Carotene
25. The RDA for iron during pregnancy is:
A. 25 mg/day B. 30 mg/day
C. 35 mg/day D. 40 mg/day
26. Average weight gain during pregnancy should be:
A. 15-17 kg B. 5-7 kg
C. 10-12 kg D. 8-9 kg
27. Constipation in pregnant women can be treated by
taking:
A. Only fluids
B. Plenty of vegetables, fruits and fluids
C. Fatty foods
D. Starchy foods
28. The increasing size of uterus in pregnancy causes:
A. Diarrhoea B. Fever
C. Heartburn and acidity D. Severe headache
29. Vaccine recommended to prevent chickenpox is:
A. Rotavirus B. BCG
C. MMR D. Varicella
30. MMR vaccine is recommended to prevent:
A. Measles B. Malaria
C. Pneumonia D. Polio
31. Sequence in which growth starts at the centre of the
body and moves towards the extremities:
A. Cephalocaudal pattern
B. Proximodistal pattern
C. Distal pattern
D. Dynamic pattern
32. Play that involves social interaction with peers:
A. Constructive play B. Intellectual play
C. Social play D. Practice play
33. Which of the following is NOT the developmental
task of early childhood stage?
A. Learning to control the elimination of bodily
waste
B. Learning sex differences and sexual modesty
C. Learning to take solid food
D. Learning language to describe social and physical
reality
34. Which of the following is NOT the principle of growth
and development?
A. Development proceeds from specific to general
B. Development is cumulative in nature
C. Development is a continuous process
D. Development is multidimensional in nature
35. The first stage of Piaget’s cognitive development during
which the infants and toddlers build schemes through
their senses and motor activities is known as:
A. Formal operational stage
B. Concrete operational stage
C. Preoperational stage
D. Sensory-Motor stage
36. Which among the following is NOT the stage of
prenatal development?
A. Foetal stage B. Embryonic period
C. Organogenesis period D. Germinal period
37. The pattern of change that begins at conception and
continues through the life span:
A. Development B. Growth
C. Maturation D. Multiplication
38. When the baby turns head to one side, assumes
“fencer” position, extends arms and legs on preferred
side is:
A. Moro reflex B. Tonic reflex
C. Babkin reflex D. Rooting reflex
39. A small tube with a light source at one end is inserted
into the uterus to inspect the foetus for defects of the
limbs and face is a technique called:
A. Aminocentesis B. Ultrasound
C. Fetoscopy D. Maternal blood analysis
40. .................. is the inner layer of cell that develops during
the germinal period.
A. Trophoblast B. Blastocyst
C. Endocyst D. Embryoblast
41. Ability to use mental representation to which child
has attached meaning is called:
A. Symbolic function B. Spatial reasoning
C. Conservation D. Operations
42. Altruistic behaviour is:
A. Action that harm others
B. Action that benefit others
C. Expecting reward from others
D. Selfish behaviour
43. When 4 years old Saloni tells her mother that her doll
cannot come and play because she is sick and has to
stay in bed, she is exhibiting the behaviour of:
A. Egocentricism B. Animism
C. Realism D. Artificialism
44. The process by which child absorbs meaning of new
word after hearing it:
A. Grammar and syntax B. Fast maping
C. Social speech D. Private speech
45. A child hides history under a blanket and he sincerely
believes that none can see history as he is not able to
see it. This type of thinking among children is termed
as:
A. Concrete thinking B. Abstract thinking
C. Centralised thinking D. Egocentric thinking
46. The processes by which an infant learns to reproduce
desired occurrences originally discovered by chance
is:
A. Schemes B. Tertiary reaction
C. Circular reaction D. Mental representation
47. An area of the forebrain that makes up about 80% of
the brain volume and plays critical role in language,
thinking etc.
A. Cerebral cortex B. Medulla
C. Cerebral lobe D. Cerebellum
48. The acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine
role is called:
A. Gender Identity B. Gender Role
C. Gender Typing D. Androgyny
49. ............ is the judgement we make about our own worth
and the feeling associated with those judgements.
A. Self-concept B. Self-esteem
C. Self-perception D. Self-confidence
50. Which of the following is NOT the part of language
development during Early Childhood years?
A. Speech and vocabulary development
B. Development of oral expression
C. Development of listening skills
D. Development of language imitation
51. The cognitive ability that indicates the beginning of
the pre-operational period is:
A. Ability of symbolic thinking
B. Ability for goal directed behaviour
C. Ability to make out other person’s perspective
D. Ability of decentralised thinking
52. A term used for any environmental agent that causes
damage during the prenatal period.
A. Teratogens
B. Maternal diet
C. Neurons
D. Emotional stress of mother
53. Fantasy play, dramatic play or imaginative play
commonly refers to:
A. Pretend play B. Constructive play
C. Functional play D. Parallel play
54. Scale used for measuring new born’s condition on
basis of appearance, pulse, activity and respiration:
A. Apgar scale
B. Brazelton scale
C. Neonatal screening tool
D. IQ scale
55. The stage of cognitive development in which children
become more sophisticated in their use of symbolic
thought but are not yet able to use logic is:
A. Sensori-Motor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Formal operational stage
D. Concrete operational stage
56. A parent who uses a rigid, punitive and restrictive
style to control the behaviour of their children is a
(an):
A. Authoritarian B. Authoritative
C. Permissive D. Rejecting
57. Self-conscious emotions that emerge in the second
year and depend, in part, on cognitive development
is called:
A. Primary emotion B. Emotion
C. Secondary emotion D. Tertiary emotion
58. The ectoderm layer of embryo forms the:
A. Digestive system B. Circulatory system
C. Skeleton system D. Nervous system
59. APGAR scale is used to:
A. Assess the development of the child in womb.
B. Assess the functioning of reflexes in newborn.
C. Assess the level of attachment of the child to
mother.
D. Assess the health of newborn after birth.
60. Psychological activities like symbolic thought,
sensori-motor co-ordination develop during:
A. Infancy B. Early childhood
C. Late childhood D. Adolescence
61. A merchant purchases an item for ` 500. He marks its
price as ` 700. He allows 10% discount on cash
payment. What is total profit in terms of amount and
percentage?
A. ` 130, 26% B. ` 130, 28%
C. ` 150, 30% D. ` 120, 14%
62. With a 10% discount on the face value of a watch, a
shopkeeper has 20% profit. If he gives 13% discount
on the face value, then his profit percent is:
A. 15 B. 16
C. 17 D. 18
63. Mr. Keshav invested ` 21,250 for 10 years. At what
rate of simple interest will he obtain the total amount
of ` 26,350 at the end of 10 years?
A. 2% per annum B. 2.4% per annum
C. 3% per annum D. 3.4% per annum
64. What will be the compound interest on ` 16,000 at
20% per annum for 9 months if the interest is
compounded quarterly?
A. ` 2,225 B. ` 2,522
C. ` 2,252 D. ` 2,525
65. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for
3 years is ` 105 and with the same rate the compound
interest for 2 years is ` 70.70. The rate per cent per
annum is:
A. 2% B. 2.5%
C. 4% D. 5%
66. Consider the statement and the following assumptions
and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement.
Statement: The teachers of all degree colleges went
on an indefinite strike in protest against the govt’s
decision for postponding pay revision to next year.
Assumptions:
(I) The government may suspend all the striking
teachers.
(II) The government may revise the pay of the college
teachers in the current year.
A. Assumption (I) is implicit.
B. Assumption (II) is implicit.
C. Either assumption (I) or (II) is implicit.
D. Both assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.
67. A statement is followed by two arguments numbered
(I) and (II). You have to decide which of the arguments
is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Statement: Should subsidy on LPG be banned?
Argument:
(I) Yes, this would help the government to reduce
the financial deficit.
(II) No, poor families will have to face the problems.
A. Only (I) is a strong argument.
B. Only (II) is a strong argument.
C. Neither (I) nor (II) is a strong argument.
D. Both the arguments (I) and (II) are strong.
68. What number must be added to the numbers 4, 8, 16,
26 so that they become proportional?
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. 8
69. Two whole numbers whose sum is 72 cannot be in
the ratio:
A. 5 : 7 B. 3 : 5
C. 3 : 7 D. 4 : 5
70. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry in a
college are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 20% and 10%
respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?
A. 5 : 7 : 8 B. 7 : 9 : 11
C. 7 : 9 : 10 D. 8 : 9 : 11
71. In an election between two candidates A and B, A
got 61% of total votes cast and won the election by
3806 votes. If no vote is declared invalid, then the
total number of votes cast is:
A. 6747 B. 9759
C. 10553 D. 17300
72. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what
percentage must a customer reduce the consumption
so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
A. 20% B. 25%
C. 30% D. 33.33%
73. A candidate who gets 20% marks, fails by 10 marks
but another candidate who gets 42% marks, gets 12%
more than the passing marks. Maximum marks are:
A. 50 B. 80
C. 100 D. 120
74. By selling a chair for ` 56, a man gets a percentage
profit equal to its C.P. The C.P. of the chair is:
A. ` 50 B. ` 48
C. ` 45 D. ` 40
75. There is 10% loss if a toy is sold for ` 1,440. At what
price it is to be sold to get 15% profit?
A. ` 1,820 B. ` 1,840
C. ` 1,860 D. ` 1,880
76. A trader mixes three varieties of rice costing ` 50,
` 20 and ` 30 per kg in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3 in terms of
weight and sells the mixture at ` 33 per kg. What
percentage of profit does he make?
A. 3% B. 5%
C. 10% D. 15%
77. The marked price of an article is ` 250. The
shopkeeper gives a discount of 20% and still gets a
profit of 25%, then the cost price of the article is:
A. ` 148 B. ` 150
C. ` 160 D. ` 200
78. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50
years. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was
5
3
. The
ages of A and B after 5 years will be:
A. 35 years, 25 years B. 30 years, 20 years
C. 38 years, 12 years D. 40 years, 20 years
79. Binny is half as old as Sunny. Pinky is twice old as
Sunny. How many times is Pinky as old as Binny?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. 8
80. Five years ago, P was thrice as old as Q and ten years
later P shall be twice as old as Q. The present age of
P is:
A. 20 years B. 30 years
C. 40 years D. 50 years
81. Find the odd one:
A. Moon B. Earth
C. Mars D. Venus
82. Which of the following alternatives is odd?
A. 16 - 64 B. 17 - 68
C. 20 - 100 D. 21 - 84
83. If PUT = 19, WAKE = 10, then MUSIC = ?
A. 12 B. 13
C. 14 D. 15
84. If 74683 means GREAT, then 7684 means:
A. HEAR B. GEAR
C. REAG D. GAER
85. Amit is the son of Rahul. Rahul’s sister Priyanka has
a son Yuvraj and a daughter Indu. Raja is the maternal
uncle of Yuvraj. How is Amit related to Yuvraj?
A. Father B. Uncle
C. Cousin D. Nephew
86. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Priyanka said,
“Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother”.
How is Priyanka related to that lady?
A. Mother B. Sister
C. Aunt D. Daughter
87. A statement is followed by two conclusions numbered
(I) and (II). You have to decide which of the
conclusions follow from the given statement.
Statement: Unemployment is one of the major reasons
for country’s poverty.
Conclusion:
(I) Providing the employment opportunities will
reduce the problem of country’s poverty.
(II) All the people in the country are unemployed
A. Only conclusion (I) follows.
B. Only conclusion (II) follows.
C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows.
88. A man starts from a point and moves 3 km north, then
turns to west and goes 2 km. He turns north and walks
1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is
he from the starting point?
A. 8 km B. 3 km
C. 5 km D. 11 km
89. Monu after travelling 6 km towards east from his house
realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He
turned and travelled 12 km towards west, turned right
and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight
distance of the office from his house is:
A. 20 km B. 14 km
C. 10 km D. 8 km
90. Sonu goes 10 km towards north and then he turns 45°
to the right and goes 6 km. Then he goes 8 km after
turning to the right. Now what is the direction of his
face?
A. South - East B. South - West
C. North - East D. North - West
91. Choose the correct alternative which can be
substituted for the given word/sentence.
That which cannot be corrected.
A. Unintelligible B. Illegible
C. Incorrigible D. Indelible
92. Change from Assertive to Negative.
I was doubtful whether it was you.
A. I am doubtful whether it was you.
B. I am doubting if it was you.
C. I am not sure that it was you.
D. I was not sure that it was you.
93. Transform the following sentence from affirmative to
negative from the options: (without change of
meaning)
You must yield to your fate.
A. You cannot but yield to your fate.
B. You should not but yield to fate.
C. You have no other option so better challenge your
fate.
D. You need to yield to your fate.
94. Select the correct transformation from active to passive
voice.
They cancelled all flights because of fog.
A. All flights will be cancelled because of fog.
B. All flights were cancelled because of fog.
C. All flights are being cancelled because of fog.
D. Fog was the reason flights were cancelled.
95. Choose the correct direct speech of the following
sentence from the options given below:
They asked me whether I was ill.
A. They said to me, “Were you ill?”
B. They told me, that “Are you ill?”
C. They tell me, “Are you ill?”
D. They said to me, “Are you ill?”
96. Choose the correct indirect speech of the following
sentence from the options given below:
He said, “Hurrah, I have won the quiz.”
A. He said joyfully he has won the quiz.
B. He exclaimed with joy that he had won the quiz.
C. He exclaimed joyfully that he won the quiz.
D. He exclaimed with joy that I had won the quiz.
97. Choose the correct assertive form of the following
sentence from the options below:
What a fine doctor he is!
A. He is a doctor who is fine.
B. He is a very fine doctor.
C. Isn’t he a fine doctor!
D. He isn’t a fine doctor.
98. Choose the correct antonym of the following from
the options given below:
“Alleviate”
A. ameliorate B. aggravate
C. upgrade D. assuage
99. Choose the correct sentence in which the subject and
the verb agree:
A. The state of his affairs were such as to cause
anxiety to his creditors.
B. The mayor, with his councillors, is to be present.
C. Bread and butter were his only food.
D. The house, with its contents, were insured.
100. Fill in the blank with the correct degree of adjective
from the given options:
She is _______ than clever.
A. braver B. more brave
C. brave D. more braver
101. Choose the correct synonym of the following word
from the options below:
“Fickle”
A. inconstant B. consistent
C. unchanging D. firm
102. Choose the correct sequence of tenses.
He ________ because his feet ________ dirty.
A. bathed, was B. was bathing, were
C. was bathing, are D. was bathing, will be
103. Fill in the blank with the correct form of tense.
The commonwealth games _____ place every four years.
A. has taken B. take
C. takes D. is taking
104. Choose the correct form of Passive Transformation of
the sentence given.
They were carrying the injured player off the field.
A. The injured player had been carried off the field.
B. Off the field the injured player was carried.
C. The injured player was being carried off the field.
D. The injured player was carried off the field.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 - A B C A D D D A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 - B C B B C C A A A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 - A C B A C C B C D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40= A C B A C C A B C B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 - A B B B A B A C B C
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 - A A A A B A C D D B
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