[New]ICDS Supervisor Answer Key|253/2024 Answer Key Kerala PSC
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY ICDS Supervisor
Question Paper Code: 16/2025/OL
Category Code: 253/2024
Exam: Supervisor (ICDS)
Date of Test 13-02-2025
Department Women & Child Development
ICDS Supervisor Answer Key 253/2024
Question1:-A family where two previously divorced or widowed individuals with
children marry or cohabitate is called a _______
A:-Nuclear Family
B:-Extended Family
C:-Blended Family
D:-Single-Parent Family
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question2:-The process by which an individual learns and internalizes the values,
beliefs, and norms of a culture is called _______
A:-Enculturation
B:-Acculturation
C:-Assimilation
D:-Diffusion
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question3:-Which of the following is an example of secondary socialization?
A:-A child learning the family's religious practices
B:-A child learning how to speak through interactions with family members
C:-A child learning societal gender norms through media and peer groups
D:-A child learning basic motor skills through play
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question4:-Which of the following best defines a polymorous family?
A:-Two unmarried individuals living together in a committed romantic
relationship
B:-A family in which extended members live in a single household
C:-A family unit consisting of only one parent and their children
D:-A family where one or both partners have consensual relationship with
multiple people
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question5:-Assertion (A) : Domestic violence laws often aim to protect victims
regardless of gender
Reason (R) : Patriarchal structures are the sole contributors to domestic violence.
A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false
D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question6:-Which of the following is NOT a direct social consequence of alcoholism?
A:-Family breakdown
B:-Increase in community cohesion
C:-Domestic violence
D:-Workplace absenteeism
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question7:-Which provision of Indian law empowers the court to presume abetment
of suicide in cases of dowry harassment?
A:-Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act
B:-Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act
C:-Section 498A of the IPC
D:-Section 304B of the IPC
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question8:-In 2022, India introduced a first-of-its-kind scheme aimed specifically at
the employment of transgender individuals. Which state launched this initiative?
A:-Tamil Nadu
B:-Kerala
C:-Maharashtra
D:-Gujarat
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question9:-Which global initiative has most significantly influenced the
development of elderly care policies in developing countries?
A:-The United Nations' Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (2002)
B:-The world Health Organization's Global Strategy and Action Plan on Ageing
and Health (2016)
C:-The International Labour Organization's Convention on the Rights of Older
Workers (2001)
D:-The World Bank's Global Aging and Pension Reform Initiative (2012)
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question10:-Assertion (A) : Globalization has led to an increase in child labour in
certain industries in developing countries
Reason (R) :Globalization often leads to an increased demand for cheap labour,
which exploits vulnerable children in low-wage sectors.
A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false
D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question11:-Which of the following statements about greenhouse gases is/are
correct?
i. The term greenhouse gases refer to the atmospheric gases that absorb the
spectrum and
emit them back within the thermal range of infrared radiation.
ii. These gases can significantly affect the global temperature
iii. The temperature of the Earth's surface would have been almost 59° Fahrenheit
colder than the present temperature in the presence of these gases
options
A:-only i is correct
B:-only ii is correct
C:-both i and ii are correct
D:-All are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question12:-Efficient consumerism can be achieved by :
i. Product standards may be verified before buying from market
ii. Waste minimization techniques can be adopted
iii. Recycling and proper disposal of waste materials can be done
iv. Enactment and implementation of strict legislation
A:-only i is correct
B:-only ii is correct
C:-both i and ii are correct
D:-all are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question13:-Which is the Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to
guarantee the right to work?
A:-MGNREGA 2005
B:-Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008
C:-Employment Exchange Act, 1959
D:-Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question14:-What is the key difference between resettlement and rehabilitation in
the context of displaced persons and project-affected persons?
A:-Resettlement involves psychological support, while rehabilitation is limited
to economic compensation
B:-Resettlement focuses on one-time relocation, while rehabilitation focuses
on rebuilding livelihoods and addressing socio-cultural aspects
C:-Rehabilitation is a one-time process, while resettlement is continuous
D:-Resettlement focuses only on common property resources while
rehabilitation excludes economic factors
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question15:-Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Self-Help
Group (SHG) programme?
i. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank
of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived
ii. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an
individual member takes
A:-only i and ii
B:-only i
C:-only ii
D:-none
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question16:-Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
List I List II
1. B.R. Mehta Committee A. 73rd Amendment Act
2. Ashok Mehta Committee B. Two tier system
3. Panchayath Raj Institutions C. Central Finance Commission
4. Article 243 (1) D. Three Tier System
A:-1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-Assertion (A) : Education is the most effective tool to reduce gender
discrimination in society
Reason (R) : Educating women improves their employability, increases decisionmaking
power and reduces dependence
A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false
D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question18:-What is a significant barrier to women's participation in political
processes?
A:-Equal representation in leadership positions
B:-Cultural and social norms promoting gender equality
C:-Financial dependence and unequal access to resources
D:-Absence of women-centric issues in governance
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-Match the international conventions with their focus areas related to
women in governance
Conventions/Treaties Focus Areas
1. CEDAW A. 1993
2. Beijing Declaration B. International human rights treaty
3. UNSCR 1325 C. Women, Peace and Security Agenda
4. Vienna Declaration D. Global agenda for gender equality
A:-1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question20:-Which of the following was not recommended by the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment Act regarding Panchayati Raj?
i. 33% seats will be reserved for women candidates at all levels in all elected rural
bodies
ii. States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to
Panchayati Raj institutions
iii. The act establishes a two-tier structure for panchayaths.
A:-only i
B:-ii and iii
C:-only ii
D:-only iii
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question21:-Which of the following is true about structured interviews?
i. All interviewees receive the same context of questioning
ii. Interviewers strictly follow the order and working of questions.
iii. Questions are usually open-ended and allow for flexible responses
iv. Structured interviews are commonly used in survey research
A:-only (i and ii)
B:-only (i, ii and iii)
C:-only (i and iii)
D:-only (i, ii and iv)
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question22:-One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over
structured interviews is that :
A:-They are quicker and cheaper to administer
B:-They create interviewer effects
C:-They have greater measurement validity
D:-They are less prone to inter-coder variation
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question23:-Assertion (A) : Closed questions are easier and quicker for interviewers
and respondents to
complete
Reason (R) : In closed questions, respondents are not required to write
extensively but
instead select or circle predefined answers
A:-Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B:-Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C:-Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
D:-Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question24:-Match the following methods with their specific features
Column A (Methods) Column B (Specific Features)
1. Case Study A. Requires direct interaction in participants'
natural
environment
2. Focus Group Discussion B. Relies on firsthand data collected directly
from
individuals or groups
3. Participant Observation C. Examines a single case or phenomenon in
great
detail over a period of time
4. Primary Data D. Uses guided group interaction to gather
perceptions and opinions
A:-1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question25:-Which of the following terms best describes systematic walks with key
informants through the area of interest, observing land and water use, and seeking
problems and solutions?
A:-Systemic walk
B:-Field survey
C:-Community assessment walk
D:-Transect walk
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question26:-Which of the following is considered the earliest organized social
welfare effort?
A:-Charity Organization Societies
B:-Elizabethan Poor Laws
C:-Settlement House Movement
D:-Beveridge Report
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question27:-Social work and social service differ in
A:-The scale of intervention
B:-The need for professional training
C:-Their ultimate objectives
D:-Their association with government welfare
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question28:-Which value is most critical when a social worker intervenes in a case
of child abuse?
A:-Respect for client confidentiality
B:-Social justice
C:-Cultural competence
D:-Non-maleficence
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question29:-Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between IFSW and
IASSW?
I. Both organizations focus exclusively on practitioner development
II. IFSW represents practitioners, while IASSW focuses on educators and
researchers
III. IASSW is a subset of IFSW.
IV. Both organizations are responsible for accrediting social work degress globally
A:-only (i and ii)
B:-only (ii)
C:-only (i, iii and iv)
D:-only (iv)
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question30:-Which of the following is an example of "Engage in practice-informed
research"?
A:-Conducting a randomized control trial on a new intervention
B:-Analyzing census data for a community project
C:-Developing a new diagnostic tool for assessments
D:-Using client feedback to improve service delivery methods
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question31:-During the exploration phase of social case work, a common challenge
is
A:-Balancing the client's self-determination with confidentiality
B:-Ensuring that the client fully discloses all relevant information
C:-Developing immediate intervention strategies
D:-Establishing a professional yet empathetic client-worker relationship
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question32:-In social case work, self-determination can conflict with which of the
following principles?
A:-Confidentiality in cases of client disclosure
B:-Beneficence when a client's decision may lead to self-harm
C:-Justice when prioritizing community welfare over individual autonomy
D:-Accountability in reporting client progress to supervisors
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question33:-Why is empathy considered a transformative skill in social case work?
A:-It allows the worker to mirror the client's emotional state for validation
B:-It bridges the power imbalance between the worker and client by promoting
mutual understanding
C:-It replaces the need for solution-focused techniques by fostering emotional
connection
D:-It ensures the client accepts the social worker's interventions without
resistance
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Which principle is critical during the initial phase of group formation?
A:-Respect for individuality
B:-Evaluation of group goals
C:-Identification of latent leadership
D:-Promotion of group cohesion
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question35:-Which factor best indicates active participation in a therapeutic group?
A:-High attendance rates
B:-Voluntary sharing of experiences
C:-Agreement with group leader's views
D:-Lengthy contributions to discussions
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question36:-Which feedback type is most effective in encouraging behavior change
within a group setting?
A:-General positive feedback
B:-Constructive feedback with specific examples
C:-Negative feedback addressing faults
D:-Group consensus-based feedback
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question37:-In the process of community organization, which of the following is
correct sequential flow of roles played by a community organizer to ensure that a
community is empowered effectively?
A:-Building rapport → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies →
Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress
B:-Assessing community needs → Building rapport → Developing strategies →
Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress
C:-Building rapport → Mobilizing Community Participation → Assessing
community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress
D:-Mobilizing Community Participation → Building rapport → Assessing
community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-Match the community development strategy with the theorist who
advocated for it.
Strategies Theorists
1. Empowerment through Education A. Paul Freire
2. Mobilizing Resources for change B. Saul Alinsky
3. Direct Action for justice C. Mary Parker Follett
4. Participatory leadership D. Jim Ife
5. Conflict and Cooperation Balance E. Jack Rothman
Options :
A:-1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E
B:-1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E
C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D
D:-1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Which of the following best describes social welfare?
A:-A system that supports only unemployed individuals
B:-A system focused on the collective well-being and needs of individuals and
communities
C:-A system that offers legal assistance
D:-A method for income generation
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-The first step in the process of social welfare administration is
A:-Program implementation
B:-Policy evaluation
C:-Assessing community needs
D:-Financial management
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question41:-Social welfare programs should be designed to
A:-Address only the immediate needs of individuals
B:-Provide long-term solutions to societal issues
C:-Focus solely on the financial aspects
D:-Serve a limited number of individuals
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question42:-Which of the following is the role of a social action group?
A:-Advocate for social change and challenge the status quo
B:-Work only with elected representatives
C:-Preserve existing social structures
D:-Support governmental policies without question
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question43:-Which theory focuses on the idea that social action arises from the
meanings individuals attach to their actions and social interactions?
A:-Structural functionalism
B:-Symbolic interactionism
C:-Feminist theory
D:-Conflict theory
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question44:-Which type of sampling involves dividing the population into distinct
subgroups and selecting a random sample from each subgroup?
A:-Simple Random Sampling
B:-Stratified Sampling
C:-Cluster Sampling
D:-Convenience Sampling
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question45:-Which of the following is used to measure the spread or dispersion of
data in a dataset?
A:-Mean
B:-Standard deviation
C:-Median
D:-Mode
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question46:-Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing an ANOVA
test?
A:-Compare the means of two or more groups
B:-Determine the correlation between two variables
C:-Calculate the standard deviation of a sample
D:-Test the hypothesis of independence between two categorical variables
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question47:-What is the primary function of the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?
A:-Conduct judicial proceedings for children in conflict with law
B:-Manage child welfare programs
C:-Run educational programs for juveniles
D:-Supervise child adoption cases
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question48:-Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the District Child
Protection Unit (DCPU)?
A:-Setting up child protection committees
B:-Implementing child labor laws
C:-Conducting juvenile justice hearings
D:-Ensuring implementation of child protection policies
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question49:-What is the focus of the KAVAL PLUS scheme?
A:-Provide financial aid to underprivileged children
B:-Reduce school dropout rates among children
C:-Provide protective services to children at risk
D:-Improve children's educational outcomes
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question50:-Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of POSHAN
ABHIYAN in India?
A:-Ministry of Women and Child Development
B:-Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
C:-Ministry of Education
D:-Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question51:-Selective attention is also known as
i. Endogenous attention
ii. Goal-driven attention
iii. Volitional attention
iv. Executive attention
A:-All of the above
B:-All except iii
C:-ii and iv
D:-ii only
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Driving a car and talking to a passenger at the same time is an
example of
A:-Focussed Attention
B:-Executive Attention
C:-Alternative Attention
D:-Divided Attention
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question53:-Which of the following statement is correct?
A:-Sensation is top down approach while perception is bottom up approach
B:-Sensation is bottom up approach while perception is top down approach
C:-Both sensation and perception are top down approach
D:-Both sensation and perception are bottom up approach
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question54:-When we look at the Olympic logo, we see overlapping circles rather
than the assortment of curved, connected lines. The underlying law is
A:-Law of Similarity
B:-Law of Pragnanz
C:-Law of Closure
D:-Law of Common Region
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-The distinct memory stores in the brain according to Atkinson and
Shiffrin are :
A:-Fluid memory and Crystalized memory
B:-Working memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory
C:-Fluid memory and Short-term memory and Long-term memory
D:-Sensory memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question56:-Which of the following are correct about WMS
i. Anyone ages 16 to 90 is eligible to take this test.
ii. The fourth edition (WMS-IV) has been published in 2019
iii. WMS was first published in 1945
A:-All the above are correct
B:-i and ii are correct
C:-i and iii are correct
D:-ii and iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question57:-The five stages that people follow during the creative process as
outlined by Graham Wallace are :
A:-(i) Incubation (ii) Illumination (iii) Verification and (iv) Preparation
B:-(i) Illumination (ii) Verification (iii) Incubation and (iv) Production
C:-(i) Preparation, (ii) Illumination (iii) Incubation and (iv) Verification
D:-(i) Preparation (ii) Incubation (iii) Illumination and (iv) Verification
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-The five kinds of contents as per the SOI model are :
A:-Cognition, Memory, Production, Evaluation and Semantic
B:-Visual, Auditory, Systems, Semantic and Behavioural
C:-Behavioural, Visual, Symbolic, Semantic and Auditory
D:-Visual, Auditory, Symbolic, Semantic and Relations
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question59:-The first step in problem solving is
A:-Diagnosing the root cause/causes
B:-Defining the problem
C:-Identifying the alternatives available
D:-Analysing the problem
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question60:-Statements :
i. All tigers are mammals
ii. Some mammals are carnivores.
Conclusion :
I. Some tigers are carnivores.
II. All carnivores are tigers.
A:-Only conclusion I is correct
B:-Only conclusion II is correct
C:-Both conclusion I and II are correct
D:-Neither conclusion I nor II is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Which of the following is/are intrinsic motivation?
i. Participating in sports competition by own initiation
ii. A person dancing for health benefits
iii. A child riding cycle
iv. Self-study for examination
v. Reading for general knowledge
A:-All the given activities
B:-ii, iii, iv and v
C:-ii and iii
D:-iii only
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question62:-Which of the following is true as per the James-Lange Theory of
emotion?
A:-Physiological responses occur first and they play a major role in the
experience of emotion
B:-Emotion occur first and then physiological responses take place
C:-Emotion and physical experience take place together
D:-Thoughts are responsible for emotions
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question63:-In classical conditioning, what does the conditioned response (CR)
refer to?
A:-The natural reaction to an unconditioned stimulus
B:-The learned response to a conditioned stimulus
C:-The response to an unconditioned stimulus
D:-A neutral response to a stimulus
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question64:-Higher-order conditioning occurs when :
A:-A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus by being paired with an
existing conditioned stimulus
B:-A conditioned stimulus no longer elicits a response
C:-A neutral stimulus becomes a neutral stimulus
D:-A conditioned response is extinguished
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question65:-Which of the following best illustrates the principle of behavioral
contrast in operant conditioning?
A:-A student receives a reward for every correct answer, and their
performance improves over time
B:-A child is given a cookie for finishing their homework early, but their
homework performance decreases when the reward is stopped
C:-A gambler continues to gamble because they have won on occasion, even
though they mostly lose
D:-A student behaves well at home because they know their parents will give
them a reward at the end of the week
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question66:-When using positive reinforcement, which of the following is most
important for ensuring that the reinforcement is effective?
A:-The reinforcement should be delayed to give the individual time to reflect
on their behavior
B:-The reinforcement should be varied randomly to maintain interest
C:-The reinforcement should immediately follow the desired behavior
D:-The reinforcement should be given only after the behavior has been
repeated several times
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question67:-According to Allport, which of the following best describes the
functional autonomy of motives?
A:-Motives that remain static and do not evolve throughout life
B:-Motives that are always learned through observation and socialization
C:-Motives that are exclusively tied to childhood experiences
D:-Motives that, once established, are no longer influenced by their original
causes
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question68:-Carl Rogers suggested that the primary task of therapy is
A:-To help the client discover the root causes of their unconscious conflicts
B:-To help the client develop a more realistic understanding of themselves by
promoting congruence
C:-To encourage the client to adopt societal norms and behaviors to improve
social functioning
D:-To challenge the client's self-concept in order to confront irrational beliefs
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question69:-In Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage, which of the following is
considered crucial for the development of trust?
A:-The ability to successfully navigate societal expectations for success
B:-A child's ability to assert independence and control their environment
C:-The development of a strong sense of identity through peer relationships
D:-The consistent and reliable care provided by caregivers
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question70:-In Bandura's self-system, cognitive processes are important because
they
A:-Determine an individual's ability to control their impulses and delay
gratification
B:-Serve as the primary mechanism through which people adapt to social
environments and influence their actions
C:-Completely determine the outcome of behaviors without any influence from
the environment
D:-Are irrelevant, as Bandura's theory emphasizes behavioral reinforcement
over congnition
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-In a workplace, Sonia notices that her colleague, Hari frequently
arrives late to meetings. Sonia attributes Hari's lateness to his personal laziness
and lack of commitment. However, Sonia later learns that Hari has been dealing
with health issues, which have caused him to be late. According to Attribution
Theory, Sonia's initial attribution of Hari's behavior is most likely an example of :
A:-Fundamental Attribution Error
B:-Self-Serving Bias
C:-Actor-Observer Bias
D:-Consensus Effect
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question72:-Justin has always considered himself an environmentally conscious
person, frequently recycling and minimizing his carbon footprint. However, when he
bought a new car, he chose a model that is known to have high fuel consumption
and low environmental efficiency. Justin experiences discomfort about his choice
because it conflicts with his prior self-image as an eco-friendly person. According to
Cognitive Dissonance Theory, how is Justin likely to reduce the dissonance he is
feeling?
A:-He will start driving less to offset his environmental impact
B:-He will ignore the dissonance and avoid thinking about it
C:-He will buy a second car that is more environmentally friendly
D:-He will justify his decision by telling himself that the new car is necessary
for his job
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question73:-A researcher is studying the effectiveness of a new intervention
designed to improve communication skills in children with Autism Spectrum
Disorder (ASD). The intervention focuses on using visual aids, such as picture cards,
to help children express their needs. Some parents report improvements in their
children's communication, while others see no change. What is the most likely
explanation for these differing outcomes?
A:-All children with ASD respond to visual aids in the same way, so the
intervention is ineffective for some children
B:-The intervention may be more effective for children with lower levels of
language development or those who are more visually oriented
C:-Parent who report no change may not be using the picture cards
consistently, leading to inconsistent results
D:-The intervention is likely ineffective for all children with ASD because it is
based on a single strategy in the form of visual aids
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question74:-A patient with schizophrenia exhibits a complete lack of motivation,
diminished emotional expression, and an inability to complete daily tasks. Which
symptom domain is primarily involved here?
A:-Positive symptoms
B:-Cognitive symptoms
C:-Negative symptoms
D:-Affective symptoms
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question75:-Which of the following is a distinguishing feature between generalized
anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder?
A:-Panic disorder is characterized by constant worrying about future events,
while GAD involves unpredictable and sudden anxiety attacks
B:-The primary symptom of GAD is avoidance of feared situations, whereas
panic disorder involves intrusive thoughts
C:-Panic disorder is associated with fear of social situations, while GAD
involves fears related to separation from loved ones
D:-GAD involves persistent, excessive worry about a variety of topics, while
panic disorder is marked by sudden, recurrent episodes of intense fear or
discomfort
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-Which stage of child development is characterized by rapid physical
growth and motor skill development?
A:-Infancy
B:-Adolescence
C:-Early childhood
D:-Middle childhood
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing child development?
A:-Genetics
B:-Parenting styles
C:-Peer relationships
D:-Seasonal weather patterns
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question78:-According to Jean Piaget's theory, which stage involves the
development of object permanence?
A:-Pre operational stage
B:-Concrete operational stage
C:-Sensorimotor stage
D:-Formal operational stage
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question79:-What is one major principle of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development
theory?
A:-Development is continuous and uniform
B:-Each stage involves a conflict that must be resolved
C:-Development is based solely on biological factors
D:-Cultural differences do not impact development
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question80:-How does play contribute to a child's cognitive development?
A:-It enhances physical strength
B:-It helps build problem-solving and critical thinking skills
C:-It prevents emotional outbursts
D:-It solely focuses on social interactions
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question81:-Which of the following is a benefit of early childhood education?
A:-Accelerates emotional maturity
B:-Promotes lifelong learning habits
C:-Ensures academic success for all children
D:-Eliminates the need for primary education
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question82:-What type of play involves children engaging in imaginary roles or
scenarios?
A:-Solitary play
B:-Parallel play
C:-Pretend play
D:-Cooperative play
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question83:- Which theorist proposed the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) as
a key element in learning?
A:-Sigmund Freud
B:-Lev Vygotsky
C:-Jean Piaget
D:-B.F. Skinner
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-What is a critical period in child development
A:-A stage of academic success
B:-A time frame when certain skills are most easily learned
C:-A phase marked by frequent mood swings
D:-A period of regression in development
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question85:-Which environmental factor has the most significant impact on child
development?
A:-Access to technology
B:-Availability of toys
C:-Quality of parental interaction
D:-Neighborhood infrastructure
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question86:-What role does outdoor play have in child development
A:-Its is primarily for entertainment
B:-It helps develop gross motor skills and reduces stress
C:-It minimizes the need for structured learning
D:-It discourages group interactions
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question87:-Why is early intervention important for children with developmental
delays?
A:-It reduces the need for lifelong support services
B:-It ensures higher IQ scores
C:-It replaces traditional learning methods
D:-It eliminates the impact of genetics
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question88:-What is the recommended intake of cereals and millets for indian
pregnant women
A:-220g
B:-200g
C:-280g
D:-300g
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question89:-What is the additional requirement for folate for lactating women
A:-50 mic g
B:-80 mic g
C:-100 mic g
D:-120 mic g
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question90:-1000 days of life given priority in health interventions are
A:-upto 2 years
B:-1-3 years
C:-2-4 years
D:-1.5-3.5 years
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question91:-_________ supplements are a new treatment for diarrhoea to be given
always in addition to ORS
A:-Calcium
B:-Phosphorous
C:-Lithium
D:-Zinc
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question92:-Infants born to ________ deficient mothers will develop cretinism and
stunted growth
A:-Zinc
B:-Protein
C:-Calcium
D:-Iodine
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question93:-A stunted child has a height for age Z score that is atleast _________ SD
below median in the WHO growth chart
A:-2
B:-5
C:-3
D:-1
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question94:-The beneficiaries of SUMAN intervention are
A:-Covid patients
B:-Mothers
C:-Adolescents
D:-Elderly
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question95:-'Laqshya' initiative aims to improve
A:-Adolescent health
B:-Elderly's health
C:-Non communicable diseases
D:-Labour rooms
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question96:-Regarding early childhood care and education, which of the following is
not a key principle fo the National Education Policy 2020?
A:-Rigid curriculum
B:-Holistic development
C:-Play-based learning
D:-Focus on foundational literacy and numeracy
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question97:-Which theorist is most closely associated with the concept of
"Scaffolding"?
A:-Maria Montessori
B:-Jean Piaget
C:-Lev Vygotsky
D:-John Dewey
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question98:-Which of the following is not a crucial factor in creating a high-quality
early childhood education program?
A:-Qualified and well-trained early childhood educators
B:-Small class sizes and individualized attention for each child
C:-A developmentally appropriate curriculum that focuses on play-based
learning and exploration
D:-A rigid and structured environment that emphasizes academic achievement
from a very young age
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question99:-How can preschools in India best promote inclusive education?
A:-Creating separate classes for children with special needs
B:-Providing individualized education plans for all children
C:-Prioritizing the needs of children from privileged backgrounds
D:-Focusing solely on academic achievement
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question100:-Which of the following is not a core responsibility of a preschool
supervisor in Kerala?
A:-Ensuring the implementation of the state's ECCE curriculum
B:-Providing direct instruction to children in the classroom
C:-Monitoring the quality of teaching and learning
D:-Supporting teacher professional development
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Principles of Development-ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials
Types of Development ICDS Supervisor Exam-Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions
Child Development ICDS Supervisor Exam - Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions
Malaria |ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials
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1. Meal Planning for the Infant
2. Spplementary foods for Infants
4. How to Feed Infant? Meal Plan for Infants
5. Meal Planning for the Prechoolers
Topic wise Notes for ICDS Supervisor Exam
3. Psychology
4. Physiology
5. Microbiology
6. Sociology
MCQ Questions & Answers for ICDS Supervisor
2. Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (1-20)
3. Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (21-30)
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14. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 2
15. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 3
16. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 4
17. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 5
19. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 7
20. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 8
21. ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1
22. Elementary Care & Education MCQ
23. Solved Previous Question Paper ICDS Supervisor
24. Women & Child ICDS Supervisor Exam
25. Extension Education Notes for ICDS Supervisor
26. Complete NOTES Child Psychology
Nutrition Notes
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à´—à´¸്à´±്à´±ാà´³്à´Ÿ്à´Ÿിà´¸ം Gestaltism Learning methods
à´œ്à´žാà´¤ൃà´µ്യവഹാà´°à´µാà´¦ം ( Cognitive behaviorism)
à´œ്à´žാà´¤ൃà´µാà´¦ം (Cognitivism)
à´¨ാà´¡ീമന:à´¶ാà´¸്à´¤്à´°ം (neuropsychology)|പഠനത്à´¤െ à´¸്à´µാà´§ീà´¨ിà´•്à´•ുà´¨്à´¨ ഘടകങ്ങള്
à´µ്യക്à´¤ിà´¤്à´µം Personality
PART 2 ഉള്à´ª്à´ªെà´Ÿുà´¤്à´¤ിà´¯ുളള à´µിà´¦്à´¯ാà´്à´¯ാà´¸ം Inclusive education
à´¦ിà´¨ാചരണങ്ങള് Important dates based on themes
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